MTS DMAIC testing platform – My WordPress Blog

Control tests

/20

Define Quiz

1 / 20

Calculate the potential Benefit….

A. 500,000€

B. 1,000,000€

C. 100,000€

D. 50,000€

2 / 20

The symbol Sigma σ represents…

A. the standard deviation

B. the variance

C. the alpha risk

D. the beta risk

3 / 20

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a Project Charter?

A. Business Case

B. Root Cause Analysis

C. Problem Statement

D. Project Scope

4 / 20

The project charter contains tools like…

A. creative techniques and statistical snalysis

B. statistical tools (ANOVA, t-Test, regression)

C. problem, Objective statement, In scope/out of scope

D. control chart and transfer knowledge

5 / 20

The "R" in SMART stands for:

A. Reliable

B. Realistic

C. Relevant

D. Robust

6 / 20

What does the CTS abbreviation means?

A. Critical to Satisfaction

B. Critical to Standard

C. Critical to Standard Deviation

D. Critical to System

7 / 20

The DMAIC toolbox consists of…

A. project management tools and creativity tools

B. project management tools, creativity tools and statistical tools

C. statistical tools (only!)

D. project management tools

8 / 20

The abbreviation COPQ means…

A. Cost of Process Quality

B. Cost of Product Quota

C. Calculation of Performance Quality

D. Cost of Poor Quality

9 / 20

What is the equivalent of a 20% scrap rate in parts per million?

A. 200 ppm

B. 2000 ppm

C. 20000 ppm

D. 200000 ppm

10 / 20

In which cases should project risks be addressed before starting the project?

A. When both likelihood and impact are low

B. When both likelihood and impact are high

C. When likelihood is high, regardless of impact

D. When impact is high, regardless of likelihood

11 / 20

Is the 3-sigma process better than the 6-sigma process?

A. No

B. They are equal

C. Yes

D. They can't be compared

12 / 20

The objective statement "Reduce errors from 5% to 2.5% by 2024" is directly linked to the:

A. Regression tool

B. SMART thinking

C. Attribute Agreement Analysis

D. P-value analysis

13 / 20

Six Sigma is…

A. a Lean tool for problem solving

B. a process improvement methodology using statistics

C. a Greek term for “making improvements”

D. none of the above

14 / 20

What role does the project sponsor play in the Define phase?

A. Conducts hypothesis testing

B. Leads data collection efforts

C. Provides support, resources and guidance

D. Creates control charts for monitoring

15 / 20

How should a Six Sigma project be aligned with business goals?

A. It should focus only on cost reduction

B. It should be directly linked to key performance indicators (KPIs)

C. It should target quick fixes for operational issues

D. It should prioritize projects based on employee preferences

16 / 20

Which of the following best describes a Critical to Quality (CTQ) characteristic?

A. A process step that has the highest cost

B. A key measurable requirement that impacts customer satisfaction

C. A regulatory compliance metric

D. A Six Sigma tool for process mapping

17 / 20

What is the SIPOC?

A. Global project analysis

B. Micro-level process map

C. Comprehensive stakeholder analysis

D. Macro-level process map

18 / 20

The SMART abbreviation stands for:

A. Simple, Maintainable, Acceptable, Relevant, Time-bound

B. Specific, Measurable, Acceptable, Realistic, Time-bound

C. Significant, Manageable, Accurate, Reliable, Time-bound

D. Strategic, Meaningful, Adaptable, Robust, Time-bound

19 / 20

Why is the problem statement important in the Define phase?

A. It ensures all team members have a common understanding of the issue

B. It outlines the solution before data collection begins

C. It determines the financial impact of the project

D. It replaces the need for data analysis

20 / 20

The collection of the VOC can be done:

A. Only internally

B. Internal and external

C. Only external

D. Hypothetically

Your score is

Exit

/20

Measure Quiz

1 / 20

Calculate the missing values of the Gage R&R

A. 1) 10.67% and 2) 89.33%

B. 1) 5.29% and 2) 94.71

C. 1) 8% and 2) 92%

D. 1) 7.56% and 2) 92.44%

2 / 20

A Six Sigma process is defined by…

A. 1000 ppm

B. 6 ppm

C. 3.4 ppm

D. 0 ppm

3 / 20

Calculate the range in the boxplot

A. 21

B. 28

C. 10

D. 12

4 / 20

What is Cpk in this case?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Relative

D. Can't be defined

5 / 20

There is an improvement from an average of 7 to 6 (this means it is on target). In this case, Cpk will be…

A. 2

B. 1

C. 0.5

D. 0

6 / 20

The Attribute Agreement Analysis can be conducted

A. Only with 3 operators

B. Only when a standard is defined

C. Only with 2 operators and an expert

D. No answer is correct

7 / 20

Which point is median?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

8 / 20

Datatype "Machine" is…

A. Continious

B. Interval

C. Binary

D. Discrete

9 / 20

Which of the two groups A or B has greater range?

A. A

B. B

C. They're equal

D. Can`t be compared

10 / 20

What is the standard deviation if the variance is 25 cm²

A. 2.5cm

B. 5cm

C. 250cm

D. 625cm

11 / 20

Calculate the agreement rate to the standard measurement

A. 100%

B. 70%

C. 90%

D. 80%

12 / 20

Calculate the range

A. 2

B. 8

C. 19

D. 10

13 / 20

What is the Cp value?

A. Less than 1

B. Greater than 1

C. Equals to 1

D. Can't be defined

14 / 20

What is the main goal of the Measure phase in the DMAIC process?

A. To identify the root cause of the problem

B. To implement process improvements

C. To control the process after improvements are made

D. To collect and analyze data to understand the current process performance

15 / 20

What is a critical aspect when collecting data in the Measure phase?

A. Ensure data is subjective and based on personal experience

B. Ensure data is collected only from one department

C. Ensure data is accurate, reliable, and representative of the process

D. Collect data only after implementing improvements

16 / 20

Calculate the DPU/ppm

A. 9.0/900,000

B. 1.0/1,000,000

C. 2.5/2,500,000

D. 1.8/1,800,000

17 / 20

What DPU stands for?

A. Defects per user

B. Defects per unit

C. Define part utility

D. Divisions per unit

18 / 20

Which statistical method is often used in the Measure phase to assess the capability of a process based on collected data?

A. Regression Analysis

B. Process Capability Index (Cp, Cpk)

C. Hypothesis Testing

D. Root Cause Analysis

19 / 20

Calculate the median

A. 6

B. 8

C. 2

D. 4

20 / 20

How many data points contains the boxplot?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

Your score is

Exit

/20

Analyze Quiz

1 / 20

In this example, what is the correlation r?

A. r = 1

B. r = -1

C. r = 0

D. Not enough information

2 / 20

Does the department have an effect on the quality of the documents?

A. Yes, the effect is significant

B. No, there is no significant effect

C. Possibly, but further testing is needed

D. Insufficient data to determine

3 / 20

What kind of slope does the regression line have?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. Undefined

4 / 20

What is the value of S in FMEA with these given values?

A. 10000

B. 1000

C. 100

D. 10

5 / 20

In this Design of Experiments table, calculate the missing values

A. 4.5/60/100

B. 4.5/40/120

C. 4.5/50/100

D. 4.5/50/120

6 / 20

What is another name for a Fishbone Diagram?

A. Pareto Chart

B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram

C. Control Chart

D. Scatter Plot

7 / 20

Which factor has the greatest main effect?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

8 / 20

Use the formula Decay = 3 + 2Cp to calculate the decay value

A. 5

B. 23

C. 33

D. 13

9 / 20

The histogram is based on a total of...

A. 10 data points

B. 15 data points

C. 20 data points

D. 25 data points

10 / 20

In which situation R-squared is the best?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

11 / 20

In the FMEA the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is evaluated and is calculated by RPN = ...

A. Safety, Opportunity, Development

B. Security, Operation, Durability

C. Severity, Occurrence, Detection

D. Stability, Optimization, Design

12 / 20

ANOVA is a method for testing the differences in…

A. Variances

B. Standard deviations

C. Means

D. Distributions

13 / 20

Which R-square value is the best?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

14 / 20

Two-proportion test: What is the p-value here?

A. Equals 0

B. Greater than 0.05

C. Negative value

D. Less than 0.05

15 / 20

What can we find on the ridges of the fishbone?

A. Solution

B. Potential causes

C. More questions

D. Variation

16 / 20

In a full factorial experimental design with 3 factors, how many two-way interactions are there?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

17 / 20

The following displays a correlation diagram. Which kind of correlation is shown?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. No correlation

D. Can't be defined

18 / 20

What is the p-value?

A. Undefined

B. Less than 0.05

C. Greater than 0.05

D. Equal to 0.05

19 / 20

The residuals are...

A. Normally distributed

B. Not normally distributed

C. Distributed randomly

D. Uniformly distributed

20 / 20

Which statement best describes the table related to factorial design experiments?

A. 2^2 factorial design with 2 replications

B. 2^2 factorial design with no replications

C. 2^3 factorial design with no replications

D. 2^2 factorial design with 3 replications

Your score is

Exit

/18

Improve Quiz

1 / 18

The project management tool Gantt Chart is defined as a…

A. graphical tool (histogram and boxplot)

B. brainstorming tool

C. statistical tool with p-values

D. graphical representation of activity against time

2 / 18

In the Improve phase, a team identifies a process change that improves efficiency but introduces new risks. What should they do next?

A. Implement the change immediately and monitor results

B. Conduct a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) to assess and mitigate risks

C. Return to the Measure phase to collect more baseline data

D. Reject the solution since new risks should always be avoided

3 / 18

What is the purpose of a pilot test in the Improve phase?

A. To analyze the root causes of defects

B. To document all process steps in detail

C. To train employees in statistical process control

D. To verify the effectiveness of the proposed solution on a small scale

4 / 18

What can be Design of Experiments (DOE) used for in the Improve phase?

A. To systematically test and optimize process improvements

B. To identify potential failure modes

C. To define the scope of the project

D. To control the performance of a process over time

5 / 18

Which of the following is a key success factor for sustaining improvements after implementation?

A. Relying solely on technology to maintain process stability

B. Ensuring that only Six Sigma experts manage the process

C. Avoiding documentation of the changes to maintain flexibility

D. Establishing clear Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) and training

6 / 18

In order to generate solutions the project team can use…

A. The control charts

B. Response surface method

C. Creative techniques like 6-3-5 method

D. No answer is correct

7 / 18

The Black Hat in the 6 Hat Method is related to...

A. the objective perspective

B. the facilitator of the creative

C. the creative perspective

D. the critical perspective

8 / 18

Which tool is commonly used in the Improve phase to generate potential solutions?

A. Fishbone Diagram

B. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

C. SIPOC Diagram

D. Brainstorming

9 / 18

Which Lean Six Sigma tool helps prioritize solutions based on impact and effort?

A. Pareto Chart

B. Impact-Effort Matrix

C. Control Chart

D. Histogram

10 / 18

When testing a proposed solution, what is the primary purpose of using a control group?

A. To ensure that every process participant experiences the change

B. To prevent employees from resisting change

C. To eliminate variation in the new process

D. To provide a comparison baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the change

11 / 18

What is the main goal of the Improve phase in DMAIC?

A. To define the problem clearly

B. To identify the root cause of the problem

C. To implement and validate solutions

D. To monitor the process over time

12 / 18

In which scenario is a Poka-Yoke solution most effective?

A. When human errors need to be minimized in a repetitive task

B. When reducing the cost of a process is the only priority

C. When employees are resistant to change

D. When training employees is too expensive

13 / 18

In the Improve phase, a team wants to verify whether an improvement has led to a statistically significant change. Which test should they use?

A. Control Chart

B. SIPOC Diagram

C. Hypothesis Testing (e.g., t-test, ANOVA)

D. Value Stream Mapping

14 / 18

What role does statistical analysis play in evaluating improvements?

A. It ensures that all changes lead to a 100% defect-free process

B. It quantifies the impact of changes and determines if improvements are statistically significant

C. It replaces the need for practical testing of solutions

D. It eliminates all variation in the process

15 / 18

For continuous data, the comparison before and after can be calculated using…

A. the handover process to process other

B. the project charter

C. 2-sample t-test

D. 2-proportion Test

16 / 18

What is a key characteristic of a successful improvement solution?

A. It is sustainable, measurable, and aligned with business goals

B. It avoids any kind of process documentation

C. It focuses only on reducing costs, regardless of the impact on quality

D. It only addresses symptoms of the problem to provide a quick fix

17 / 18

Which statistical method is commonly used to identify optimal process settings in the Improve phase?

A. Regression Analysis

B. Design of Experiments (DOE)

C. Control Charts

D. Pareto Analysis

18 / 18

Which solution should be implemented according to the Rentability Matrix (Benefit - Effort)?

A. The one with high benefit and low effort (Bubbles 1 and 2)

B. The one with high benefit and high effort (Bubble 6)

C. The one with low benefit and low effort (Bubble 4)

D. The one with low benefit and high effort (Bubbles 3 and 5)

Your score is

Exit

/19

Control Quiz

1 / 19

Control: Which statement is true regarding the use of control charts?

A. They can be used for both variable and attribute data

B. They are only applicable to industrial processes

C. They are only useful in production environments

D. They eliminate the need for process improvements

2 / 19

What is the centerline in a control chart typically based on?

A. The average of the data points

B. The median of the data points

C. The target value specified by management

D. The mode of the data points

3 / 19

In an X-bar and R chart, what does the R chart monitor?

A. The average of the sample means

B. The range of variation within subgroups

C. The proportion of defective items

D. The number of defects per unit

4 / 19

What do the Upper Control Limit (UCL) and Lower Control Limit (LCL) represent in a control chart?

A. The specification limits of the process

B. The target values for the process

C. The maximum and minimum values observed in the data

D. The natural variability limits of the process when it is in control

5 / 19

What are the main steps for the handover process?

A. Fishbone diagram and statistical analysis

B. Knowledge transfer, communication and handover action plan

C. Data quality check (like Gauge R&R)

D. No answer is correct

6 / 19

Which type of control chart is used for monitoring the proportion of defective items in a sample?

A. P-chart

B. X-bar chart

C. C-chart

D. I-MR chart

7 / 19

Which of the following is a rule used to identify special cause variation in a control chart?

A. A single point outside the control limits

B. A run of 7 consecutive points on one side of the centerline

C. A trend of 6 points consistently increasing or decreasing

D. All of the above

8 / 19

Which control chart is most suitable for monitoring continuous process data?

A. X-bar & R chart

B. P-chart

C. C-chart

D. Pareto diagram

9 / 19

Which control chart is most appropriate for monitoring the number of defects per unit?

A. P-chart

B. U-chart

C. C-chart

D. X-bar chart

10 / 19

What does it indicate if a data point on a control chart falls outside the control limits?

A. The process is operating normally

B. The process is out of control and requires an investigation

C. The control limits need to be recalculated

D. The sample size is too small

11 / 19

What is in the range between LCL and UCL?

A. Out-of-Control processes

B. Common-cause variation

C. Special-cause variation

D. Unpredictable noise

12 / 19

Abbreviation for the Reaction Plan OCAP is…

A. Operational Control Action Plan

B. Organized Corrective Action Procedure

C. Ongoing Calibration Adjustment Protocol

D. Out of Control Action Plan

13 / 19

What kind of control chart should be used?

A. I-MR-chart

B. U-chart

C. X-bar-chart

D. P-chart

14 / 19

Which of the following is NOT a type of control chart?

A. X-bar and R chart

B. P-chart

C. Histogram

D. C-chart

15 / 19

The use of SPC is…

A. to describe the project charter

B. to establish the correct sample size

C. to monitor the performance of a process

D. to identify correlation

16 / 19

What is the main difference between common cause variation and special cause variation?

A. Common cause variation is predictable, while special cause variation is unpredictable

B. Common cause variation is due to external factors, while special cause variation is due to internal factors

C. Common cause variation is always within control limits, while special cause variation is always outside control limits

D. Common cause variation is controllable, while special cause variation is uncontrollable

17 / 19

What is the purpose of a control chart?

A. To illustrate the potential causes

B. To eliminate common cause variation

C. Look at whether the process is in a state of statistical process control and to identify special cause variation

D. To identify verified contributors

18 / 19

What is the main purpose of a control chart in statistical process control?

A. To determine the process capability

B. To identify the root causes of process defects

C. To monitor whether a process remains stable within normal variation

D. To display the minimum and maximum process values

19 / 19

The X-bar chart and up-chart can be used for…

A. attribute/attribute data

B. continuous/attribute

C. continuous/continuous

D. No answer is correct

Your score is

Exit

/20

Final Quiz

1 / 20

Abbreviation for the Reaction Plan OCAP is…

A. Operational Control Action Plan

B. Organized Corrective Action Procedure

C. Ongoing Calibration Adjustment Protocol

D. Out of Control Action Plan

2 / 20

Calculate the median

A. 6

B. 8

C. 2

D. 4

3 / 20

Which factor has the greatest main effect?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

4 / 20

What is another name for a Fishbone Diagram?

A. Pareto Chart

B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram

C. Control Chart

D. Scatter Plot

5 / 20

In the FMEA the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is evaluated and is calculated by RPN = ...

A. Safety, Opportunity, Development

B. Security, Operation, Durability

C. Severity, Occurrence, Detection

D. Stability, Optimization, Design

6 / 20

What is the standard deviation if the variance is 25 cm²

A. 2.5cm

B. 5cm

C. 250cm

D. 625cm

7 / 20

What is Cpk in this case?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Relative

D. Can't be defined

8 / 20

The "R" in SMART stands for:

A. Reliable

B. Realistic

C. Relevant

D. Robust

9 / 20

What is the equivalent of a 20% scrap rate in parts per million?

A. 200 ppm

B. 2000 ppm

C. 20000 ppm

D. 200000 ppm

10 / 20

The "6 Hat Method" is a tool in which phase?

A. Measure Phase

B. Improve Phase

C. Analyze Phase

D. Define Phase

11 / 20

The Black Hat in the 6 Hat Method is related to...

A. the objective perspective

B. the facilitator of the creative

C. the creative perspective

D. the critical perspective

12 / 20

What is Cpk in this case?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Relative

D. Can't be defined

13 / 20

The abbreviation COPQ means…

A. Cost of Process Quality

B. Cost of Product Quota

C. Calculation of Performance Quality

D. Cost of Poor Quality

14 / 20

Is the 3-sigma process better than the 6-sigma process?

A. No

B. They are equal

C. Yes

D. They can't be compared

15 / 20

Which solution should be implemented according to the Rentability Matrix (Benefit - Effort)?

A. The one with high benefit and low effort (Bubbles 1 and 2)

B. The one with high benefit and high effort (Bubble 6)

C. The one with low benefit and low effort (Bubble 4)

D. The one with low benefit and high effort (Bubbles 3 and 5)

16 / 20

The histogram is based on a total of...

A. 10 data points

B. 15 data points

C. 20 data points

D. 25 data points

17 / 20

What is in the range between LCL and UCL?

A. Out-of-Control processes

B. Common-cause variation

C. Special-cause variation

D. Unpredictable noise

18 / 20

What is the Cp value?

A. Less than 1

B. Greater than 1

C. Equals to 1

D. Can't be defined

19 / 20

The "From...to...by" statement is an important statement for the:

A. Define Phase

B. Measure Phase

C. Improve Phase

D. Control Phase

20 / 20

What kind of slope does the regression line have?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. Undefined

Your score is

Exit